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Iconic
May 1st, 2007, 09:03 PM
But the fact remains it took til really 1962 for the courts to give its novel interpretation with the idea of seperation of church and state in ways that went beyond Jefferson (who was not even at the Constitutional Convention).

Please explain in detail how the concept of Church/state separation is now considered a "novel interpretation" by today's court. So far your arguments have fallen flat.

The later amendments never proclaimed the liberal version of "seperation of church and state."

Please defend the liberal version.

You simply backed my point- the original intent of the founders IS different from what the courts say today.

No kidding. Our constitution and laws have changed, but not because of someone's version of original intent, but from the amendments made to the Constitution.

Tron4JC
May 5th, 2007, 12:25 AM
My arguments falling flat? You were the one who argued original intent is correctly interpretedly by today's courts, then proceed to dismiss every evidence from what those back then said as well as the state constitutions made by the very founders who gave us the US Constitution.