Wedding at Cana?

[jethro]

The water-into wine story found only in John 2:1-11?

From what I can gather, Jesus and his disciples are at the wedding, and they ask for some wine. After Mary informs Jesus that there's no wine, He told her that His "hour" had not yet come. His mother then tells the servants to do whatever Jesus wanted.

Jesus then turns water into wine. Why did he seemingly refuse Mary's request, and then fulfill it?

[Jadiri]

The hour or the time for the wine had not came just yet at the time mary had came with to him..

of everything I have read this is what I find his reproof of her was more in a way of saying dont be anxious ..

[Buzzardhut]

It definitely doesn't mean Mary is in charge as some religions teach.

[Jadiri]

definatly not his words and reproof makes this very clear ..

[Hernando]

In my opinion, this story is to show us that we are to honor our parents and it doesn't end when we reach adulthood. This was not a public display to prove he was God, but it was done at the request of his mother.

[Buzzardhut]

In my opinion, this story is to show us that we are to honor our parents and it doesn't end when we reach adulthood. This was not a public display to prove he was God, but it was done at the request of his mother.
It was not done at Mary's request, Jesus listened to His Heavenly Father's instructions.
Jesus was not just sitting around with Mary telling Him what to do.

[Ryan]

The book of John is written to those who already believed and it presents Jesus Christ as the son of God. John 20:30-31 “And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: But these are written that you might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you might have life through His mane.”

There are only seven miracles recorded in the book and only God could perform these miracles. Each miracle Jesus is seeking to know their faith in Him, He is teaching a spiritual lesson for those present at the time and for us, and the miracle is proving that He is God in flesh.

Mary the mother of Jesus was there John does not tell us why she was there, Jesus and His disciples were invited to the wedding. They have run out of wine at the wedding, and Mary tells Jesus they have no wine and Jesus said unto her, “Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet come.” Many believe that Jesus is rebuking her. But if we look at the other miracles Jesus is seeking to know their faith in him. Jesus sought the faith of the nobleman concerning his son, Jesus ask the impotent man “Will you be made whole?” Jesus saw the multitude; He ask Philip “Whence shall we buy bread, that these may eat” verse 6 Jesus said this to prove Philip because Jesus already new what He was going to do. Did Mary have faith in Him? His mother said unto the servants; "Whatsoever he said unto you, do it." There is a spiritual lesson in the in the water pots and the wine.

What did Jesus mean when He said; “Mine hour is not yet come” Some believe that He is speaking of the beginning of his ministry. But John 2:11 seems to contradict that thought “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.”

Look at these scriptures, was Jesus referring to this hour.
John 7:30 “Then they sought to take him: but no man laid hands on him, because his hour was not yet come.”
John 12:7 “Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour”
John 17:1 “These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:”
Matthew 26:45 “Then cometh he to his disciples, and said unto them, Sleep on now, and take [your] rest: behold, the hour is at hand, and the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.”
Mark 14:41 “And he cometh the third time, and said unto them, Sleep on now, and take [your] rest: it is enough, the hour is come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners.”

[Dee]

Maybe Mary's request was God inspired and when Jesus rebuked her and told her His hour had not yet come it hadn't.....but an hour later it had?:idunno

Too simplistic?

Sometimes the most simple answer is the right one.

[gregbed]

Maybe Mary's request was God inspired and when Jesus rebuked her and told her His hour had not yet come it hadn't.....but an hour later it had?:idunno

Too simplistic?

Sometimes the most simple answer is the right one.

Simplicity is good, but the answer doesn't agree with the passage when set in the whole of the gospel of John. In this gospel, "my hour" has a very specific meaning(or more precisely,referent). It refers to Jesus' crucifixion, which opens the doors to the kingdom of God.
So when Jesus says "My hour has not yet come" he wasn't talking about a literal hour, but rather using it the way we do when we say "it was their finest hour", that is pointing to a specific event. See John 7:30; 8:20; 12:23; 12:27;13:1; 17:1 for the other uses of "My hour" "His hour" "The hour". In these, Jesus crucifixion is associated with His glorification.
This is a hard passage. Everyone who writes a commentary seems to state that up front. I don't see a problem with "woman, what is that to you and Me", but rather the "My hour is not yet come". Why would Jesus answer "The time for me to be glorified is not yet here" to a request to do something about the lack of wine?
I think Jesus is distancing Himself from His earthly family because He has greater obligations as the "Son of Man", but still what does His hour have to do with Mary's question? D.A. Carson (The Gospel According to John, Eerdmans) is the one that deals with this most directly (It is amazing how often you can read a commentary and at the end of the section realize they never really did answer your question). His take on it is that Jesus makes more of the question than Mary intended, or He unpacks what is behind Mary's question. (Sort of like Caiaphas in John 11:49-52 says more than he knows). Carson cites all the prophetic portrayals of the messianic age as one were wine would flow liberally (Isa. 25:6, 55:1; Je 31:12, Hos 14:7; Joel 3:18; Amos 9:13-14). What exactly did Mary expect Jesus to do? I doubt she expected a miracle. Perhaps it was just sheer exasperation - "Jesus, this is a disaster, we will experience severe shame, perhaps become outcasts in our town, do something". To which Jesus responds, it isn't yet the time when all things will be made right (the messianic age) and you won't have to suffer these kinds of problems anymore. And then in graciousness, takes care of the problem as Mary responds in faith ("Do whatever He tells you" - Mary doesn't know what Jesus will do, but knows it will be sufficient for her).
It's not an "aha" kind of understanding of the passage. But that may be due to my own Western, modern reading; maybe to John and his audience it would be an "aha" moment.

Another good commentary on John in Gerald Borchert's. Although he sideskirts the question above, he has some great points to make about Mary in these passages. It is a must read for anyone having conversations with Roman Catholics where these verses are coming up.

Greg

[Dee]

Simplicity is good, but the answer doesn't agree with the passage when set in the whole of the gospel of John. In this gospel, "my hour" has a very specific meaning(or more precisely,referent). It refers to Jesus' crucifixion, which opens the doors to the kingdom of God.
So when Jesus says "My hour has not yet come" he wasn't talking about a literal hour, but rather using it the way we do when we say "it was their finest hour", that is pointing to a specific event. See John 7:30; 8:20; 12:23; 12:27;13:1; 17:1 for the other uses of "My hour" "His hour" "The hour". In these, Jesus crucifixion is associated with His glorification.
This is a hard passage. Everyone who writes a commentary seems to state that up front. I don't see a problem with "woman, what is that to you and Me", but rather the "My hour is not yet come". Why would Jesus answer "The time for me to be glorified is not yet here" to a request to do something about the lack of wine?
I think Jesus is distancing Himself from His earthly family because He has greater obligations as the "Son of Man", but still what does His hour have to do with Mary's question? D.A. Carson (The Gospel According to John, Eerdmans) is the one that deals with this most directly (It is amazing how often you can read a commentary and at the end of the section realize they never really did answer your question). His take on it is that Jesus makes more of the question than Mary intended, or He unpacks what is behind Mary's question. (Sort of like Caiaphas in John 11:49-52 says more than he knows). Carson cites all the prophetic portrayals of the messianic age as one were wine would flow liberally (Isa. 25:6, 55:1; Je 31:12, Hos 14:7; Joel 3:18; Amos 9:13-14). What exactly did Mary expect Jesus to do? I doubt she expected a miracle. Perhaps it was just sheer exasperation - "Jesus, this is a disaster, we will experience severe shame, perhaps become outcasts in our town, do something". To which Jesus responds, it isn't yet the time when all things will be made right (the messianic age) and you won't have to suffer these kinds of problems anymore. And then in graciousness, takes care of the problem as Mary responds in faith ("Do whatever He tells you" - Mary doesn't know what Jesus will do, but knows it will be sufficient for her).
It's not an "aha" kind of understanding of the passage. But that may be due to my own Western, modern reading; maybe to John and his audience it would be an "aha" moment.

Another good commentary on John in Gerald Borchert's. Although he sideskirts the question above, he has some great points to make about Mary in these passages. It is a must read for anyone having conversations with Roman Catholics where these verses are coming up.

Greg

Very interesting Greg. Thanks for that post. Makes me think. I think you did a good job on it. Seems more study is in order. :thumb