View Full Version : To be born of a virgin or Maiden
theroc
October 6th, 2007, 01:57 AM
Isaiah 7:14 Says 14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you [a] a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and [b] will call him Immanuel.
What do yall think on this matter?
Heres an article I read on it.
http://www.jewsforjesus.org/publications/issues/9_1/almah
Paidfor
October 6th, 2007, 01:50 PM
An unmarried young woman who has had sexual relations with an man and is pregnant is not much of a sign. So while the Hebrew word used may mean maiden and only implies that she is a virgin, the fact that it is a sign means it is something unusual. So to use the term virgin in the commonly understood sense of a woman who has never had sexual intercourse is correct.
antsinmypants
October 8th, 2007, 06:54 AM
At the risk of people not taking me seriously.. I'll go ahead and post this.
The original Hebrew text had a mem final in a place that it would not ordinarily be found. In the middle of the word Almah, thereby sealing the fate that it must be a young virgin.
From an older study, also posted on RR a long time ago
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/word%20studies/almah.bmp
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/word%20studies/Almah2.bmp
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/word%20studies/almah2.jpg
Another interesting correlation with the letter Mem (open and closed form) are the parallels of an open and closed uterus. One may freely observe the correlations with simple health studies paired with studies of Hebrew.
Example of an Open Mem:
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/alephbet/mem.gif
Paidfor
October 8th, 2007, 10:25 PM
At the risk of people not taking me seriously.. I'll go ahead and post this.
The original Hebrew text had a mem final in a place that it would not ordinarily be found. In the middle of the word Almah, thereby sealing the fate that it must be a young virgin.
From an older study, also posted on RR a long time ago
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/word%20studies/almah.bmp
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/word%20studies/Almah2.bmp
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/word%20studies/almah2.jpg
Another interesting correlation with the letter Mem (open and closed form) are the parallels of an open and closed uterus. One may freely observe the correlations with simple health studies paired with studies of Hebrew.
Example of an Open Mem:
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v237/antsy/alephbet/mem.gif
Hi antsinmypants
Help me understand. There is an extra mem in the middle and an extra hey at the beginning. Wouldn't that make it a different word? How would they ever translate such a thing?
Hebrew's hard. It's is like a whole 'nother language.:lol2
Oh, and I still take you seriously.:nod
antsinmypants
October 9th, 2007, 06:52 AM
Well the Hey is like an indicator if I remember right of the noun being feminine, and also like 'the' if before a word. It's been a while since I had a class though... so that's going on memory.
Instead of the usual mem that is used at the beginning or middle of the word, the mem that is always used as a final is used in the midst of the word.
This is known as one of the jots and tittles of the bible... 'strange occurances' such as smaller or larger letters, or gaps with nothing there to further make a point within the scroll.
It is said that when Messiah Comes, he will teach us what all these things mean. :)
Some of the meanings have been lost over the many years.
Robbinson
October 9th, 2007, 11:33 PM
I agree with the post re: "a sign" (which is itself a powerful point). In addition, while the hebrew word Alma may mean virgin or young maiden, in each other instance where the word Alma is actually used throughout the bible, the context clearly suggests it is referring to a virgin. In addition, it was translated into a greek word that unabiguously means virgin when the Old Testatement was first translated into Greek (the Septuagint) which was done by Jewish traslators/rabbis hundreds of years before Jesus birth (before Christianity's birth) suggesting that the intepretation of the word at that time was in fact, virgin. Whether or not the term "must" be translated "virgin" or not ultimately is not relevant - as the gospel makes it clear that Jesus was born of a virgin and Matthew's cite to the passage in Isaiah is yet further evidence that the Jews of that time interpreted almah to mean virgin - Matthew himself being a Jew and the gospel being written for a predominantly Jewish audience (at least initially).
If God could part the red sea - or cause Sarah to give birth to Isaac at the age of 100, God could certainly cause Mary to give birth through the Holy Spirit.
antsinmypants
October 10th, 2007, 06:27 AM
yep.
BenOne
October 10th, 2007, 05:43 PM
yep.
yep, yep. :lol2
Good to see your name again. :heythere
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