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mustang
November 12th, 2007, 08:01 AM
Could someone please explain to me the meaning of Exodus 21 condoning slavery and Ex 21:7 selling one's daughter to slavery. Also if anyone knows about the story of Lot as to why he wanted to let the crowd rape his daughters and the Angel present didn't say anything to stop him. This is one of the biggest arguements Atheists will use against Christians. I've read this arguement being used in the book by Richard Dawkins. It is something I have struggled with and for awhile it made me want to leave the Christian faith. I do know that was the culture back then to have slaves and treat women as property but I have been confused as to why the Bible didn't say it was wrong.

antsinmypants
November 12th, 2007, 08:39 AM
IMHO; slavery isn't the best word to translate that to. Indentured servitude is more like it, but even in our collective histories, the indentured servitude we have experienced and what was allowed in Israel were vastly different.

No matter which year someone came into servitude, they were freed in the yovel year, and in the year of Jubilee.
Depending on how the came into the house or family, depended on how they left (If they came in married.. they left married. If they married in the family, they had a choice to stay and remain married, or leave and be "seperated". Upon exit, they were given a certain amt of food, goods and wine and sent on their way)

"Slavery" as we know it, was reserved for any nations outside of Israel that were brought into Israel... not for the children of Israel.

Plus, if you read on - you find there are certain rules as to what can and cannot be done to servants while in the home. And if a woman were indentured and her master found her to his liking (wanted to marry her), there were laws in place to protect her from being used at a disadvantage.

KnightErrant
November 14th, 2007, 01:24 PM
I believe that God allowed slavery for the same reason he allowed Leporsy; both serve as good illustrations of what Sin does to you.

goinghome
November 14th, 2007, 04:13 PM
I think it's allowed because it is better to be a slave to a Godly person, than a king in the world. At least in serving someone who is Godly we learn to serve the one true God and our lives are saved thru Jesus. But if we learn to serve the world even as their king, we would still lose our eternal lives to damnation.

As far as the jews being enslaved to Pharoah, that was punishment to urge the jews to cry out to their God and repent of their disobedience to Him.

LaMontre
November 14th, 2007, 04:55 PM
IMHO; slavery isn't the best word to translate that to. Indentured servitude is more like it, but even in our collective histories, the indentured servitude we have experienced and what was allowed in Israel were vastly different.

No matter which year someone came into servitude, they were freed in the yovel year, and in the year of Jubilee.
Depending on how the came into the house or family, depended on how they left (If they came in married.. they left married. If they married in the family, they had a choice to stay and remain married, or leave and be "seperated". Upon exit, they were given a certain amt of food, goods and wine and sent on their way)

"Slavery" as we know it, was reserved for any nations outside of Israel that were brought into Israel... not for the children of Israel.

Plus, if you read on - you find there are certain rules as to what can and cannot be done to servants while in the home. And if a woman were indentured and her master found her to his liking (wanted to marry her), there were laws in place to protect her from being used at a disadvantage.

Precisely. People see what they want to see in the bible. And the bible has been used to justify any number of atrocities which it does not condone.

Tit 1:15 Unto the pure all things are pure: but unto them that are defiled and unbelieving is nothing pure; but even their mind and conscience is defiled.

Jany
November 14th, 2007, 10:49 PM
Could someone please explain to me the meaning of Exodus 21 condoning slavery and Ex 21:7 selling one's daughter to slavery. Also if anyone knows about the story of Lot as to why he wanted to let the crowd rape his daughters and the Angel present didn't say anything to stop him. This is one of the biggest arguements Atheists will use against Christians. I've read this arguement being used in the book by Richard Dawkins. It is something I have struggled with and for awhile it made me want to leave the Christian faith. I do know that was the culture back then to have slaves and treat women as property but I have been confused as to why the Bible didn't say it was wrong.
Ex 21:7 - on rare circumstances of poverty might force a man to sell his daughter into a work or betrothal relationship. Her rights were strictly regarded. She could not be sold to foreigners; she had to be treated like a daugther if betrothted; and she had to be freed if any conditions were not kept.

Regarding Lot - Lot knew what would happen to the men (2 angles) if they did not stay with him. He (Lot) told the crowd he had 2 daughters who were virgins and offered them to the crowd , yes. That he would protect two strangers and offer his own flesh (daughters) is beyond understanding -true.

Doing his best, as he thought, he jeopardized his daughters, enraged the townsmen, and finally required rescue by those he was trying to protect.

Even though we as Believers try to live by as He would have us do, we make STUPID mistakes! Here we have our Lord God showing us just that! Fortunately, the Angels smote the men with blindness and allowed Lot and his family to escape (GOD is good!!) and merciful!! <><

mustang
November 15th, 2007, 04:03 AM
Thanks for some of the insight. Whenever someone at work brings up how someone is a Christian others will point out how bad the Bible is and I have never been able to counter some of their arguements.

A Berean
November 15th, 2007, 04:49 AM
Thanks for some of the insight. Whenever someone at work brings up how someone is a Christian others will point out how bad the Bible is and I have never been able to counter some of their arguements.

You might want to point out how HONEST the Bible is. The Holy Spirit never covered up or underplayed the sins and failings of even the most Godly of men like King David, Sololomon, Abraham, Moses, etc... Most of all it is the wonderful story of our great Holy God's love to make it possible for all sinful men to live eternally with Him because of Christ's Atonement :thumb!

antsinmypants
November 15th, 2007, 08:39 AM
Thanks for some of the insight. Whenever someone at work brings up how someone is a Christian others will point out how bad the Bible is and I have never been able to counter some of their arguements.

The best advice I ever, EVER got in regards to that was this:

Read the bible for yourself, and if you do not understand, read the passage itself, search for similar passages that talk of the same issue, and if that still does not help - check the concordances and lexicons, if the word has different forms and how they are used, and THEN check reliable and as unbiased (as you can find) commentaries/word helps so you can better understand.

I've been doing loads better since I started reading according to a set schedule and read up on customs of the bible days and how they have changed within Judaism since, and what the understanding has been these last 1,000 years from their standpoint, rather than what people read into and interject because of the disconnect from Judaism.

It can be frustrating sometimes, but it pays off and I now really enjoy getting my feet wet and 'dirty' when I go digging.

LaMontre
November 15th, 2007, 10:06 AM
Regarding Lot - Lot knew what would happen to the men (2 angles) if they did not stay with him. He (Lot) told the crowd he had 2 daughters who were virgins and offered them to the crowd , yes. That he would protect two strangers and offer his own flesh (daughters) is beyond understanding -true.

Good post.

But perhaps we can understand (at least somewhat).

2Pe 2:7 And delivered just Lot, vexed with the filthy conversation of the wicked:
2Pe 2:8 (For that righteous man dwelling among them, in seeing and hearing, vexed his righteous soul from day to day with their unlawful deeds);

So the man was being unduely influenced by the townspeople. It is quite obvious, by their actions later, that his daughters too had been negatively influenced. I am not sure we can imagine (here in America) the kind of depravity required for God to wipe out a population completely.

And I would imagine the influence on a man (especially without the benefit of the Holy Ghost) would be grave.