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HeIsEnough
August 4th, 2008, 12:46 PM
I know I'm coming a bit late to the discussion, but I just wanted to point out that most of the arguments against this idea (aside from the ones that just dismiss it out of hand without even looking at it) are of the type "this can't be correct because I don't like the implications."

On the topic of Nephilim and eternal choice/destiny, two thoughts:
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed [it], Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? [What] if God, willing to shew [his] wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? - Romans 9:19-24Paul is pointing out that if God desires to create certain "vessels" solely for the purpose of being destined for destruction (hell)...then that is His perogative. Who are we to question it?! Yes, it is uncomfortable, yes it seems "mean" or "unjust" from our imperfect, human standpoint...but there it is, right in scripture.


This scripture doesn't say what you are claiming. The whole context is God's dealings with Israel, not that the Lord creates people as fuel for the fires of hell. Man is responsible for what He does, and the Lord can foresee what man will do, and at times tell us long beforehand what will happen. Does that make God the one who did it to them? God forbid, he is righteous.



Romans 9

1I say the truth in Christ, I lie not, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Ghost,
2That I have great heaviness and continual sorrow in my heart.
3For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
4Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;
5Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.
6Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:
7Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.
8That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.
9For this is the word of promise, At this time will I come, and Sarah shall have a son.
10And not only this; but when Rebecca also had conceived by one, even by our father Isaac;
11(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;)
12It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger.
13As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.
14What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
15For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
16So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.
17For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.
18Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
19Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
20Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
21Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
22What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
23And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,
24Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
25As he saith also in Osee, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved.
26And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.
27Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved:
28For he will finish the work, and cut it short in righteousness: because a short work will the Lord make upon the earth.
29And as Esaias said before, Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha.
30What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
31But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
32Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
33As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.His meaning is clear, and it relates to an Israelite hypothetically saying "Why did God do this to us?"

He even goes on to quote Israels great prophets of the past. The whole idea is about the Jews dealing with the fact that God had cutoff Israel, and the Gentiles were grafted in. Why? Because they stumbled over the stumbling stone. Why? Because God foresaw that they would, and foretold that they would. Did the Lord do it on purpose to those who were undeserving? Paul answers that at the outset: "Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid."

It was God's (the potter) prerogative to do with Israel (the clay) whatever He wanted to do.

Kknight
August 4th, 2008, 02:32 PM
This scripture doesn't say what you are claiming. The whole context is God's dealings with Israel, not that the Lord creates people as fuel for the fires of hell. Man is responsible for what He does, and the Lord can foresee what man will do, and at times tell us long beforehand what will happen. Does that make God the one who did it to them? God forbid, he is righteous.

His meaning is clear, and it relates to an Israelite hypothetically saying "Why did God do this to us?"

He even goes on to quote Israels great prophets of the past. The whole idea is about the Jews dealing with the fact that God had cutoff Israel, and the Gentiles were grafted in. Why? Because they stumbled over the stumbling stone. Why? Because God foresaw that they would, and foretold that they would. Did the Lord do it on purpose to those who were undeserving? Paul answers that at the outset: "Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid."

It was God's (the potter) prerogative to do with Israel (the clay) whatever He wanted to do.

Perhaps I didn't phrase it well. I didn't mean that "God did it to them." Of course God is righteous. Of course He is just. Of course He is sovereign. And yes, we do have free will.

Free will and predestination are not at odds with each other if viewed from the standpoint that God is "outside of" the "time domain." God knew before the creation even happened who would choose Him and who would not. He still created the ones that would not choose Him, knowing full well that they were "destined" for hell. Despite knowing that they would never choose Him and that they were going to hell, he was longsuffering, merciful, and loving to them. That doesn't change the fact that God created them knowing "before the foundations of the world" that they were "destined" for hell. Of their own choosing yes, but "destined" nonetheless. The other part to the doctrine of election is that we chose Him because He chose us...not the other way around. I hope that makes more sense than my other post.

HeIsEnough
August 4th, 2008, 02:51 PM
Perhaps I didn't phrase it well. I didn't mean that "God did it to them." Of course God is righteous. Of course He is just. Of course He is sovereign. And yes, we do have free will.

Free will and predestination are not at odds with each other if viewed from the standpoint that God is "outside of" the "time domain." God knew before the creation even happened who would choose Him and who would not. He still created the ones that would not choose Him, knowing full well that they were "destined" for hell. Despite knowing that they would never choose Him and that they were going to hell, he was longsuffering, merciful, and loving to them. That doesn't change the fact that God created them knowing "before the foundations of the world" that they were "destined" for hell. Of their own choosing yes, but "destined" nonetheless. The other part to the doctrine of election is that we chose Him because He chose us...not the other way around. I hope that makes more sense than my other post.

Most of what you just stated is not in the text. I realize you feel the need to explain why you said what you said.

I'm trying to stay with precisely what the text does say.

One thing though, I would only stick to precisely how the scriptures phrase God's words. Created "destined" for hell is man's interpretation, not God's phrase. It may seem right for men to phrase it that way, but I would be careful to do that, it easily leads to putting our own logic behind God's thoughts. Just some thoughts.

icebear
August 4th, 2008, 02:57 PM
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v229/icebear713/2d69534f.jpg



:heh

Kknight
August 4th, 2008, 03:01 PM
Most of what you just stated is not in the text. I realize you feel the need to explain why you said what you said.

I'm trying to stay with precisely what the text does say.

One thing though, I would only stick to precisely how the scriptures phrase God's words. Created "destined" for hell is man's interpretation, not God's phrase. It may seem right for men to phrase it that way, but I would be careful to do that, it easily leads to putting our own logic behind God's thoughts. Just some thoughts.

I understand that. That's why I keep putting "destined" in quotes...I know it's a poor choice of wording, but I'm not sure how to better phrase it. But when Paul asks if God is unrighteous and then says "God forbid!" he is pointing out that there is nothing unrighteous in God's sovereignty. It is His "right" as the creator to create the creation for whatever purpose He desires.

It is worth remembering too that without God's sovereign election, none would be saved:


There are none that seeketh after God - Romans 3:11

Along that line, in verse 13 where it says:


As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.

The mystery isn't why He hated Esau, but rather why He loved Jacob.

Anyway, sorry...I don't think I'm making much sense today.

Kknight
August 4th, 2008, 03:42 PM
Most of what you just stated is not in the text. I realize you feel the need to explain why you said what you said.

What parts of what I stated are not in the text? Quoting from myself and supplying references:


God knew before the creation even happened who would choose Him and who would not.


The other part to the doctrine of election is that we chose Him because He chose us...not the other way around.


Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain:
- John 15:16a


But we are bound to give thanks always to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth: - 2 Thess. 2:13



In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will: That we should be to the praise of his glory, who first trusted in Christ. - Ephesians 1:11-12


Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: - 1 Peter 1:2


Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, - Ephesians 1:5


For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them. - Ephesians 2:10


‘According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love’. - Ephesians 1:4


‘For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son’. - Romans 8:29a

Do these references not clearly establish that a) God chose us, we did not choose Him, b) God knows who will choose Him, and c) God knew these things and chose us before the foundations of the world?

If those three statements are true, does the inverse not also have to hold true? That if God knew before the foundations of the world who would choose Him, then he also knew before the foundations of the world who would not choose Him?

Finally, if that is true, then it holds that knowing this, He still chose to create those that would not choose Him. This is not "interpretation," but clear reading of scripture.

And yet even knowing all of this, He still chooses to be longsuffering and loving toward those that He knows will not choose Him:


What if God, willing to show his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? - Romans 9:22-24

So again, I have to ask...what did I say that is not in the text?

Predestination and Free Will are both scriptural, they are not at odds with each other.

Buzzardhut
August 4th, 2008, 03:45 PM
http://img.photobucket.com/albums/v229/icebear713/2d69534f.jpg

:heh

:shocked :faint

Grace thru Faith
August 4th, 2008, 04:26 PM
Where exactly does it say that? It says that angels neither marry nor are given in marriage...it doesn't to the best of my knowledge specifically say that eternal bodies are incapable of procreation.

Your right it doesn't say that it onlly says that they don't marry. An assumption on my part. Maybe the question should be Do angels procreate? Do angels precreate in heaven and if so why has God taken marriage out of the equation in heaven?

Buzzardhut
August 4th, 2008, 04:35 PM
Your right it doesn't say that it onlly says that they don't marry. An assumption on my part. Maybe the question should be Do angels procreate? Do angels precreate in heaven and if so why has God taken marriage out of the equation in heaven?
many religions teach celestial sex
Christianity is not supposed to teach that :twitch

Kknight
August 4th, 2008, 05:07 PM
Your right it doesn't say that it onlly says that they don't marry. An assumption on my part. Maybe the question should be Do angels procreate? Do angels precreate in heaven and if so why has God taken marriage out of the equation in heaven?


many religions teach celestial sex
Christianity is not supposed to teach that :twitch

I just wanted to make clear that I'm not saying that angels procreate (or have "celestial sex") in heaven. I'm just pointing out the fact that it does not explicitly say anywhere in scripture that angels are incapable of sex and/or procreation.

To steal a line from HeIsEnough, "I'm trying to stay with precisely what the text does say." While avoiding what it clearly "does not" say in this particular case. Sorry, couldn't resist. ;) All in good fun. :lol2