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swampzy
May 30th, 2007, 11:52 AM
Recently as I have been reading the Bible and studying, I have noticed that Jesus refers to himself as the Son of Man. I know he is the Son of God but have been very curious why he also calls himself the Son of Man. Any help would be wonderful.

- Joshua

Wildcat81
May 30th, 2007, 11:57 AM
"Son of Man" is Messianic language in the Bible (cf. Daniel), and in extra-biblical early Jewish literature. It's often argued that Jesus used the title to emphasize his humanity, but in Biblical and historical context, it's more likely that he was emphasizing his role as prophesied Messiah.

RefinedbyFire
May 30th, 2007, 11:57 AM
^Because He equally is both God and man. Therefore, He is both the Son of God, and Son of Man. He came in the flesh, was tempted in every way, but was without sin. For that reason, He was the ultimate sacrifice for man's sins. He can sympathize with us in our weakness, and is a Mediator between us and the Father. He bridged the gap between God and man.

That's how I see it, anyways.

swampzy
May 31st, 2007, 11:48 AM
Thank you for your help, I understand it a little better now.

- Joshua

Joel
May 31st, 2007, 01:25 PM
An interesting aside, Adam, the first human being, is also called a 'son of God' (per Luke 3).

Adam's name means 'man' in hebrew.

Interesting then that Adam's son, Abel... would literally be the son of 'Adam' (the son of 'man').



Indeed, these two characters (Adam, Abel), form a composite picture of the 'Son of God' and the 'son of Man' -- foreshadowing Christ.

Abel spilt his blood at his brother's hand....
Adam spiritually died on a tree....



Christ herein pictured, nearly 4,000 years before he came onto the scene... and tucked away inside their scriptures, only the Jews would not see it nor their long awaited for messiah...