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Sing4Him
October 18th, 2008, 11:26 AM
THE HOLY AND CATHOLIC CHURCH IS NOT THE ROMAN CATHOLIC CHURCH

By Ken Silva pastor-teacher on Oct 18, 2008 in Roman Catholicism

There is a major myth perpetually perpetrated by papal pretenders and their apostate Roman Catholicism that when we read the “holy and catholic church” in the ancient creeds this is actually a reference to the Roman Catholic Church. When the RCC itself is a false system of pseudo-Christianity, which Dr. John MacArthur rightly calls the best front for the kingdom of Satan, as well as another religion entirely.

Men and women, as anyone familiar with the history of the ancient Christian Church knows the word “catholic” is actually derived from the Greek word katholikos, which is used in some of these early Creeds. In the Evangelical Dictionary of Theology we read that katholikos means:

“‘throughout the whole’ [of a thing]… When the term begins to appear in the [Creeds]…‘one holy catholic and apostolic church’ — it [means universal] and thus accents the unity of the church in spite of its wide diffusion.” (199)

In other words; these early Creeds refer to “all those called out to assemble”—or, the catholic, universal and invisible Church all over the world, and not at all to the Roman Catholic Church. Any Biblical scholar not blinded by his prejudices will tell you there simply was no recognized Pope in Rome until late into the sixth century as you are about to see.

Here is what Dr. Walter Martin (1928-1989), author of the classic textbook the Kingdom of the Cults and a recognized expert in the field of Comparative Religion, actually had to say about the tradition surrounding the Church of Rome:

Let us learn what history has to say. Before the year 590 AD, with the ascension of Gregory the First, there was no centralized Roman authority. It was not until the tenth century, when the eastern and western churches split, that there was anything known as the Roman Catholic Church—tenth century of the Christian Era—a thousand years after the fact (Roman Catholicism — Part 2 of 3, Walter Martin’s Religious InfoNet, cassette tape #4011, Side 1).

These are the facts. Prior to that time there just wasn’t any primacy of the Roman Bishop. He was treated the same as any of the other prominent Bishops within the various early Councils of the ancient katholikos, or universal, Church. Consider this from William Webster in his book The Matthew 16 Controversy:

What was the attitude of the Ecumenical Councils towards the bishops of Rome? If Roman Catholic teaching is correct and [really] has been accepted throughout the history of the Church as orthodox, then the popes should have always exercised supreme authority over the Church and all Church Councils. We should find this historically acknowledged by the Councils both in teaching and proceedings. But the facts reveal a different story.


The Ecumenical Councils never viewed the position of the bishop of Rome as one of supreme authority over the Church.

The Councils, in fact, always operated independently of Rome and with authority derived, in their view, directly from the Holy Spirit, and not in any sense dependent on Roman approval. Contrary to seeing themselves under the authority of the Roman see, the Councils viewed the popes as subject to the authority of the Council itself,…
(161,162, emphasis added).

Webster then discusses the famous Council of Nicea which was “convoked by the emperor Constantine in 325 A.D. Canon 6 of this Council demonstrates that the church of Rome had a very limited jurisdiction which was not universal” (163).

In eminent church historian Philip Schaff’s classic History Of The Christian Church we find out that canon 6 of this Council states:

The Nicene fathers passed this canon not as introducing anything new, but merely as confirming an existing relation on the basis of church tradition; and that, with special reference to Alexandria, on account of the troubles existing there. Rome was named only for illustration; and Antioch and all the other eparchies or provinces were secured their admitted rights. The bishoprics of Alexandria, Rome, and Antioch were placed substantially on equal footing, yet in such tone, that Antioch, as the third capital of the Roman empire, already stands as a stepping stone to the ordinary metropolitans.

And finally Dr. James White, Director of Alpha & Omega Ministries—and a leading Christian apologist against Roman Catholicism—brings out an extremely important truth here when he says:

This canon is significant because it demonstrates that at this time there was no concept of a single universal head of the church with jurisdiction over everyone else. While later Roman bishops would claim such authority, resulting in the development of the papacy, at this time no Christian looked to one individual, or church, as the final authority.

This is important because often we hear it alleged that the Trinity, or the Nicene definition of the deity of Christ, is a “Roman Catholic” concept “forced” on the church by the pope. The simple fact of the matter is, when the bishops gathered at Nicea they did not acknowledge the bishop of Rome as anything more than the leader of the most influential church in the West.(Online source, emphasis added)

http://apprising.org/2008/10/the-holy-and-catholic-church-is-not-the-roman-catholic-church/

His Bride
October 18th, 2008, 12:03 PM
This was very informative, Sing. Obviously, Catholics are unaware of this. But one has to wonder if they would do anything differently if they knew. Probably not. Few would want to act on the truth. And so, the Catholic church continues to deceive the masses.
(no pun intended)

Anddra
October 18th, 2008, 02:55 PM
Another timely reminder of the truth... :thumb

Robbinson
October 18th, 2008, 09:33 PM
Actually, an unbiased review of early Church history supports the assertions of the Catholic Church regarding uniform respect and reference to Rome and the Bishop of Rome in the early Church years and consistency of Church doctrine since the earliest Church years. Similarly, early Church history reveals a virtually uniform belief in the real presence of the Eucharist and acknowlegment of the concept of apostolic succession.

One may object to Catholic doctrine, as most on this Board do in a number of areas (that is a different thread), but history supports the Roman Catholic Church consistent position on these issues (e.g., early Church fathers beliefs and professions of faith).



Blessings,

Brian

Anddra
October 19th, 2008, 06:29 AM
Words fail me, Brian.

The opinion put forward in your post is unsubstantiated and is not borne out by Church history.

Buzzardhut
October 19th, 2008, 07:27 AM
Actually, an unbiased review of early Church history supports the assertions of the Catholic Church regarding uniform respect and reference to Rome
that would be a biased view
We revere the true Jesus, not a pagan city (http://buzzardhut.net/index/htm/Dangers.pdf)

and the Bishop of Rome in the early Church years and consistency of Church doctrine since the earliest Church years.
We dont revere a consistency with paganistic fertility religions (http://www.buzzardhut.net/Catho)

Similarly, early Church history reveals a virtually uniform belief in the real presence of the Eucharist and acknowlegment of the concept of apostolic succession. a false early church history tries the paganistic placement of hocus pocusing the true
Jesus inside a cookie (http://buzzardhut.net/index/htm/Semiramis.pdf), which is heresy (http://buzzardhut.net/index/htm/Sacramentalism.pdf)

http://www.buzzardhut.net/Mary/Cookie_files/0074_14.gif

One may object to Catholic doctrine, as most on this Board do in a number of areas (that is a different thread), but history supports the Roman Catholic Church consistent position on these issues (e.g., early Church fathers beliefs and professions of faith).an inaccurate false church history that has been pre-programmed into catholic upbringing (http://www.buzzardhut.net/Mary)

Please show any misrepresentation of Catholicism on this page:

http://www.buzzardhut.net/Mary

(cite examples)

Robbinson
October 19th, 2008, 01:01 PM
that would be a biased view
We revere the true Jesus, not a pagan city (http://buzzardhut.net/index/htm/Dangers.pdf)
We dont revere a consistency with paganistic fertility religions (http://www.buzzardhut.net/Catho)
a false early church history tries the paganistic placement of hocus pocusing the true
Jesus inside a cookie (http://buzzardhut.net/index/htm/Semiramis.pdf), which is heresy (http://buzzardhut.net/index/htm/Sacramentalism.pdf)

http://www.buzzardhut.net/Mary/Cookie_files/0074_14.gif
an inaccurate false church history that has been pre-programmed into catholic upbringing (http://www.buzzardhut.net/Mary)

Please show any misrepresentation of Catholicism on this page:

http://www.buzzardhut.net/Mary

(cite examples)

Hi BuzzardHut - I'll try to be responsive:

1. Rome:

The Catholic Church reveres the office of the Pope as the successor to Peter (who was given the keys to the kingdom) which office sits in Rome. Your statement that the Church honors a pagen city is misleading. You may not agree with apostolic succession (thats a different issue).

2. Fertility Religions.

I'm not sure what you are alluding to here - the fact that there are similarities of the gospel, for example, or incarnation to other pagen religions does not affect the truth of the gospel or incarnation. To the extent you are referring to specific practices of the Catholic Church, I'd make the same point.

3. Eucharist - false church history and hocus pocus?

The fact that the early Church (in fact first several hundred years if not significantly more) held a uniform belief in the real presence of the Eucharist is not a "false" history, but historical fact.

As to the hocus pocus - as presumably you do not find it impossible to believe in the incarnation, why is it more difficult to believe that God can create His presence in the elements of the Eucharist?

The real presence of the Eucharist is not only supported by tradition and history, but by scripture. If you note the exchange between Jesus and his disciples when discussin the Eucharist, many of Christ's disciples left him over the "hard teaching" of the blood and body of Christ. If this was metephorical, Jesus would have corrected them before letting them leave - in fact through the NT Jesus, when speaking metephorically, otherwise corrects those who mistakingly take him literally and similarly explains parables - not so here.

In addition, in 1 Cor 11:27 Paul reiterates this truth of the real presence in the Eucharist when he says: "For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself."

It is these verses that formed the uniform belief of the early Church in the real presence of the Eucharist. It is not hocus pocus, but is indeed a mystery.

4. Pre-programed into Catholic upbringing.

I was not raised Catholic - so I think I'm exempt for "pre-programing" of Catholic beliefs. Rather, I have come to agree with Church doctrine through study and prayer. If you were raised Catholic and had a bad experience, I'm very sorry for that - many have been led astray by poor teaching and failings within the Church system (the Church being made up of people capable of error in administration), but the Holy Spirit has protected it from errors on spiritual and moral issues - and that is how Christ's promise that the Church will stand against the gates of Hades will be upheld.

Blessings,

Brian

2chaotic
October 19th, 2008, 02:17 PM
Hi BuzzardHut - I'll try to be responsive:


3. Eucharist - false church history and hocus pocus?

The fact that the early Church (in fact first several hundred years if not significantly more) held a uniform belief in the real presence of the Eucharist is not a "false" history, but historical fact.

As to the hocus pocus - as presumably you do not find it impossible to believe in the incarnation, why is it more difficult to believe that God can create His presence in the elements of the Eucharist?

The real presence of the Eucharist is not only supported by tradition and history, but by scripture. If you note the exchange between Jesus and his disciples when discussin the Eucharist, many of Christ's disciples left him over the "hard teaching" of the blood and body of Christ. If this was metephorical, Jesus would have corrected them before letting them leave - in fact through the NT Jesus, when speaking metephorically, otherwise corrects those who mistakingly take him literally and similarly explains parables - not so here.

In addition, in 1 Cor 11:27 Paul reiterates this truth of the real presence in the Eucharist when he says: "For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself."

It is these verses that formed the uniform belief of the early Church in the real presence of the Eucharist. It is not hocus pocus, but is indeed a mystery.



Hello, Brian.

I have a question for you. And before you dog me, I have only been reading and studying the Bible for a few weeks now. And in that few weeks, I have become ex-catholic.

If Jesus constantly speaks in parables to the jews and gentiles, why can't he be speaking symbolically in John 6:22-71 (i assume that's what you are referring to as the "hard teaching")? He explains the parables and symbolism to the Apostles. Usually not everybody else.

He says that He is the "bread of life" and that no one can have eternal life unless they eat of his body and drink of his blood.

John 6:51 says: I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh."

Can't Him saying He is the "living bread" mean that He is referring to the fact His sacrifice is the payment for our sins? That if we believe in Him, then we can be saved? Therefore, if we partake in that belief, then we are "fed" the living bread and are able to have eternal life?

He also says in John 6:63, It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.

Jesus often, OFTEN, uses parables or symbolic language in teaching. Surly you know that? Surly Paul knew that.

And as for 1 Cor 11:27, "For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself.". Discerning means "showing insight and understanding". Therefore, if you do not understand what you believe or why you believe in Jesus, you will have judgment.


(This was my first try at correcting anyone, so cut me some slack.)

Robbinson
October 19th, 2008, 05:22 PM
Hello, Brian.

I have a question for you. And before you dog me, I have only been reading and studying the Bible for a few weeks now. And in that few weeks, I have become ex-catholic.

If Jesus constantly speaks in parables to the jews and gentiles, why can't he be speaking symbolically in John 6:22-71 (i assume that's what you are referring to as the "hard teaching")? He explains the parables and symbolism to the Apostles. Usually not everybody else.

He says that He is the "bread of life" and that no one can have eternal life unless they eat of his body and drink of his blood.

John 6:51 says: I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh."

Can't Him saying He is the "living bread" mean that He is referring to the fact His sacrifice is the payment for our sins? That if we believe in Him, then we can be saved? Therefore, if we partake in that belief, then we are "fed" the living bread and are able to have eternal life?

He also says in John 6:63, It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh is no help at all. The words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.

Jesus often, OFTEN, uses parables or symbolic language in teaching. Surly you know that? Surly Paul knew that.

And as for 1 Cor 11:27, "For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself.". Discerning means "showing insight and understanding". Therefore, if you do not understand what you believe or why you believe in Jesus, you will have judgment.


(This was my first try at correcting anyone, so cut me some slack.)

Hi - thanks for your honesty. Please don't take this the wrong way, but a decision to leave the Catholic Church (or frankly any decision of faith) based upon only a few weeks of bible reading is dangerous. You should pray about it and continue your study and maybe you will indeed confirm in your mind your current conclusions. I've been studying scripture for years from a Protestant perspective (I'm still protestant) and that study and prayer has led me to belive ever more strongly in the merit of Catholic doctrine - though I have not yet crossed the Tiber.

As to your question - the difference that I alluded to in my earlier post is that while Jesus did speak in parables and with metephors - he generally explained his meaning and when using metephors, when misunderstood as being literal - he corrected his disciples. Here he not only did not correct his disciples, but he let them "leave him" over this issue. As I noted, Paul then reiterates the need to discren the body in the Eucharist.

The reason why early Church tradition is relevant is that we can assume/hope that Christ's apostles knew what Jesus meant and had a view that they taught to their successors. History tells us that this was a near universal belief in the real presence of the Eucharist. Is it possible to interpret words of scripture differently? - of course - and that is the problem. That is why, in fact, tradition (historical interpretation from the early Church years is so critical). In fact Peter warned us in his epistle that Paul's writings are difficult and people would misinterpret them to their own destruction. This is what happend in the reformation when 1600 years of consistent interpretation on critical issues of doctrine were abandoned based on "new interpretation" of Paul's writings.

Here is an example - simple sentence:

"I didn't say that you stole my money"

This could mean:

"I" didnt say it, but someone else did; or
I didnt "say" you stole my money, but I was thinking it; or
I didnt say that "you" stole my money - meaning I think someone else did; or
I didn't say that you stole "my" money - suggesting that I said you stole someone else's money; or
I didn't say that you stole my "money" - perhaps suggesting you stole something else.

What does the sentence actually mean? In scriptural interpretation we try to interpret scripture so as not to contravene other verses, but we also look to what the historical interpretation has been. If we knew what the original apostles meant or taught their followers what the phrase meant, that would be pretty useful, right? That's the idea.

I'm not suggesting that there is an historical interpretation for every verse in scripture - nothing like that at all - but certain core doctrines have a long history in tradition going back to the apostles.

At least think about it and best of luck in your journey. Reading the scripture is wonderful and only good things, in the long run, will come from it if you open your heart and sincerely look for the truth.

Blessings,

Brian

I'mready
October 19th, 2008, 06:18 PM
Reading the scripture is wonderful and only good things, in the long run, will come from it if you open your heart and sincerely look for the truth.



I would suggest you do the same Brian - and that you use Scripture Alone for your source of Faith and Practice.

Btw - I was in the catholic church for 26 years before I was Saved - and when Salvation came it was by the Spirit of God through the Word of God and it happened instantly.
Before you can be 'Saved' you have to be 'Lost' and when conversion 'happens' it is Not a mental thing it is a spiritual thing - it is a 'spiritual' understanding that opens the understanding of God's Word.