OK, disclaimers: I know this discussion is likely to stir up some controversy, so if you disagree with me please try to keep it civil. Also, please (as always) stay within the rules of the board so that this thread does not get closed. I am interested in some serious discussion on this subject and that can't happen if the thread gets locked. Thanks!
Two of the most oft-quoted verses when it comes to discussion of the rapture, second coming, tribulation, etc are:
But of that day and [that] hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father. - KJV of Mark 13:32 and Matthew 24:36 (slightly different wording, but same concept)
and
For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night. - KJV of 1 Thess. 5:2
I agree (to a point) with the sentiments of those that like to quote these verses, but often disagree with the extent of the application and/or the context they are used in. I'll address the easier one first (1 Thess. 5:2)
Using this verse the way that many people do nicely demonstrates problem with taken single verses out of context. Many people use this verse as a way of saying that Jesus will come at a time we do not know (like a thief in the night.) The problem is that they don't bother to read a few verses further or to compare it to similar passages elsewhere in the Bible. If we read to 1 Thess. 5:4, we find it says:
But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.
Also, we have a related, relevant passage in Revelation 3:3:
Remember therefore how thou hast received and heard, and hold fast, and repent. If therefore thou shalt not watch, I will come on thee as a thief, and thou shalt not know what hour I will come upon thee.
Between these two verses and within the context, it seems pretty clear that Christ will "come as a thief in the night"
to those that are in darkness and are not watching. We, as believers, are not of the darkness but of the light. We are exhorted to WATCH so that he DOESN'T come upon us as a thief, but rather so that we are prepared and ready for his coming:
Watch therefore: for ye know not what hour your Lord doth come. But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up. Therefore be ye also ready: for in such an hour as ye think not the Son of man cometh. - Matthew 24:42-44
This is another passage where it is easy to fall into a trap. If you take verse 42 by itself (for ye know not what hour your Lord doth come,) then it is easy to say "we don't know, we can't know, etc, etc." But again, if we keep reading we see that the exhortation is about being
prepared. In other words, "Be watchful because he can come at any time. If you slack off, fall asleep, or don't watch, inevitably that will be the time that he comes and you will be caught unaware."
OK, now for the tougher one. I'm not dogmatic about this because I know that it is a touchy subject and that this point doesn't necessarily "disprove" anything...but I still think it's worth thinking about at the very least.
The Greek word for "knoweth" in the verse "but of that day or hour knoweth no man..." is ειδον. A morphological analysis of this word shows that it is present tense, aorist indicitive. This means that it is occurring at the present time (time being spoken) and completed at the moment of speaking (
http://www.bcbsr.com/greek/gtense.html .) It is not a continuing (present perfect) or a future tense verb. In other words, to use this verse to say that Jesus still doesn't know today or to use it to say that no one can EVER know is inaccurate...at least as far as the Greek grammar is concerned.
Just some things to think about...